December 18, 2017

[December/2017 Cisco Updated] Discount Cisco SWITCH 300-115 Dumps Vce Preparation Materials Youtube Study 456Q&As Share[201-227]

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300-115 dumps

Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions – 100% Success Guaranteed

QUESTION 201
A network engineer must implement Ethernet links that are capable of transporting frames and IP traffic for different broadcast domains that are mutually isolated. Consider that this is a multivendor environment. Which Cisco IOS switching feature can be used to achieve the task?
A. PPP encapsulation with a virtual template
B. Link Aggregation Protocol at the access layer
C. dot1q VLAN trunking
D. Inter-Switch Link
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here the question asks for transporting “frames and IP traffic for different broadcast domains that are mutually isolated” which is basically a long way of saying VLANs so trunking is needed to carry VLAN information. There are 2 different methods for trunking, 802.1Q and ISL. Of these, only 802.1Q is supported by multiple vendors since ISL is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
QUESTION 202
Which statement about using native VLANs to carry untagged frames is true?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2 carries native VLAN information, but version 1 does not.

B. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 carries native VLAN information, but version 2 does not.
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 and version 2 carry native VLAN information.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 3 carries native VLAN information, but versions 1 and 2 do not.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) version 2 passes native VLAN information between Cisco switches. If you have a native VLAN mismatch, you will see CDP error messages on the console output.
QUESTION 203
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

A multilayer switch has been configured to send and receive encapsulated and tagged frames. VLAN 2013 on the multilayer switch is configured as the native VLAN. Which option is the cause of the spanning-tree error?
A. VLAN spanning-tree in SW-2 is configured.
B. spanning-tree bpdu-filter is enabled.
C. 802.1q trunks are on both sides, both with native VLAN mismatch.
D. VLAN ID 1 should not be used for management traffic because its unsafe.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Here we see that the native VLAN has been configured as 2013 on one switch, but 1 (the default native VLAN) on the other switch. If you use 802.1Q trunks, you must ensure that you choose a common native VLAN for each port in the trunk. Failure to do this causes Cisco switches to partially shut down the trunk port because having mismatched native VLANs can result in spanning-tree loops. Native VLAN mismatches are detected via spanning tree and Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), not via DTP messages. If spanning tree detects a native VLAN mismatch, spanning tree blocks local native VLAN traffic and the remote switch native VLAN traffic on the trunk; however, the trunk still remains up for other VLANs.
QUESTION 204
A network engineer must improve bandwidth and resource utilization on the switches by stopping the inefficient flooding of frames on trunk ports where the frames are not needed. Which Cisco IOS feature can be used to achieve this task?
A. VTP pruning
B. access list
C. switchport trunk allowed VLAN
D. VLAN access-map
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cisco advocates the benefits of pruning VLANs in order to reduce unnecessary frame flooding. The “vtp pruning” command prunes VLANs automatically, which stops the inefficient flooding of frames where they are not needed.
QUESTION 205
Which action allows a network engineer to limit a default VLAN from being propagated across all trunks?
A. Upgrade to VTP version 3 for advanced feature set support.
B. Enable VTP pruning on the VTP server.
C. Manually prune default VLAN with switchport trunk allowed vlans remove.
D. Use trunk pruning vlan 1.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Manaully pruning the default VLAN (1) can only be done with the “switchport trunk allowed vlans remove” command. VLAN 1 is not VTP pruning eligible so it cannot be done via VTP pruning. The “trunk pruning vlan 1” option is not a valid command.
QUESTION 206
What is required for a LAN switch to support 802.1q Q-in-Q encapsulation?
A. Support less than 1500 MTU
B. Support 1504 MTU or higher
C. Support 1522 layer 3 IP and IPX packet
D. Support 1547 MTU only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The default system MTU for traffic on Catalyst switches is 1500 bytes. Because the 802.1Q tunneling (Q-in-Q) feature increases the frame size by 4 bytes when the extra tag is added, you must configure all switches in the service-provider network to be able to process maximum frames by increasing the switch system MTU size to at least 1504 bytes.
Explanation:

QUESTION: 207
Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information?
A. Project management plan
B. Report performance
C. Communications requirements analysis
D. Communication methods
300-115 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 208
A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product according to specifications has increased from one day to three days over the past month. Which tool or technique is used in this case?
A. Expert judgment
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Variance analysis
Answer: D
QUESTION: 209
There are seven members on the project team not counting the project manager and the sponsor. How many communication channels are there?
A. 21
B. 28
C. 36
D. 42
300-115 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 210
ABC project is at risk for failing to achieve a major project objective due to unresolved stakeholder issues. Team member morale is low. Who is primarily responsible for the project being at risk?
A. Team members who have low morale
B. Sponsor who is not actively supporting the project
C. Project manager who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations
D. Stakeholders who have unrealistic expectations
Answer: C
QUESTION: 211
When communicating with large audiences, which communication method works most
effectively?

A. Push
B. Interactive
C. Parallel
D. Pull
300-115 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 212
What are assigned risk ratings based upon?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Assessed probability and impact
C. Expert judgment
D. Risk Identification
Answer: B
QUESTION: 213
Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Risk response planning
300-115 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 214
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?
A. Probability and impact matrix
B. Contingency analysis report
C. Risk urgency assessment

D. Rolling wave plan
Answer: C
QUESTION: 215
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
300-115 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 216
When does risk monitoring and control occur?
A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones
Answer: C
QUESTION: 217
A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?
A. Risk monitoring and controlling
B. Risk response planning
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Quantitative risk analysis
300-115 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 218
Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk’s probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?
A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
B. Risk probability and impact
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Risk response planning
Answer: B
QUESTION: 219
What is one of the objectives of project risk management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of event on project objectives.
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be
put in place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.
300-115 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 220
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid
Answer: C
QUESTION: 221
Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Exploring
D. Mitigation
300-115 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 222
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project
objectives?
A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
C. Risk response planning
D. Interviewing
Answer: D
QUESTION: 223
What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Contract Statement of Work (SOW)
300-115 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 224
Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?
A. Purchase requisition
B. Purchase order
C. Verbal agreement
D. Request for quote

Answer: B
QUESTION: 225
Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management?
A. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers
B. Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control
C. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers
D. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers
300-115 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 226
Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements Process?
A. Risk assessment analysis
B. Make or buy analysis
C. Contract value analysis
D. Cost impact analysis
Answer: B
QUESTION: 227
A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?
A. Cost-reimbursable
B. Time and material
C. Fixed price or lump-sum
D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
300-115 dumps Answer: C

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